The citation of Hosea 11:1 in Matthew 2:15 is a well-known example of a New Testament text using an Old Testament text, and the explanations for this particular case are multiple. For the record, I think Matthew is reading Hosea 11:1 typologically, but that’s not the primary argument I want to make with this post. Instead, let’s observe that Jesus goes out of Israel and goes into Egypt (Matt 2:14), and in some way, “This was to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, ‘Out of Egypt I called my son'” (Matt 2:15b, citing Hos 11:1).
My question is this: how does going into Egypt fulfill a text about going outof Egypt?
The most common explanation offered is that Matthew put the fulfillment formula where he did in anticipation of Jesus later leaving Egypt in Matt 2:21. Put another way, Jesus went into Egypt (2:14) so that…
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